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September 11, 2009

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Blair

I think there might be some merit to these ideas. Obviously it's a biblical principle that some people were saved before Christ's earthly ministry, and Hebrews makes it clear that they became heirs "of the righteousness that comes by faith" (11:7). Clearly such people were taking hold of God's grace extended to all through Jesus Christ.

I'm not sure I can stomach "display theory" from a biblical or theological standpoint. I think it is a biblical non-negotiable that Christ's work on the cross had atoning significance, not merely a message of love, but some sort of spiritual transaction if you will. "He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world" (1 John 2:2). From God's perspective what Christ did had eternal significance extending backwards and forwards into time (the blood of Christ saves Moses and Billy Graham). Perhaps this won't fit a nontheistic view, but it seems illogical to assert otherwise.

Adam Miller

Blair,

Thanks for the comments. You make an interesting point about the potential implications of this approach for the operation of grace in the lives of pre-Christians. I hadn't given any thought to this.

With respect to the issue of the atoning significance of Christ's work, I certainly don't mean to suggest that it is merely the reiteration of a general message of love.

I would view the particulars of his actions to have enacted a very specific sequence of events with very real, specific, and essential consequences for the entire human race.

I'm not very comfortable though (perhaps especially in a theistic context) with describing Christ's atoning work as a kind of "spiritual transaction," especially if the transaction necessitated some kind of divine violence.

For my part, I think it's clear that the event of Christ's resurrection in all its historical particularity is essential, but I would be very hesitant to read either ransom or satisfaction theories of atonement as more than stop-gap metaphors at best. Granted, it is also true that (like you) I don't find the "moral influence" theory of atonement to be very satisfying either.

But I think that what Paul describes, for instance in Romans 3:24-26, doesn't fit well (in a productive way!) with any of the above mentioned theories of atonement.

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